Russell's On Denoting

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Curieuse
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Russell's On Denoting

Post by Curieuse »

Hello everyone,

I finished reading Russell's work entitled On Denoting; I must confess I found it rather difficult. So, I now reading it for a second time and hoping that the erudite members of this board might kindly guide me in my understanding of this work. Some of these questions may not be "philosophical" in nature, but rather questions about understanding sentences; as it is, the subject discussed is a little difficult and trying to interpret certain sentences adds to the difficulty. To begin, early in the work, when he is trying to understand the definite article "the," he states
To interpret "C(the father of Charles II.)," where C stands for any statement about him, we have only to substitute C(x) for "x was executed" in the above.
What exactly does "in the above" refer to? There are many things that came before this. I presume he is referring to
"it is not always false of x that x begat Charles II. and that x was executed and that 'if y begat Charles II., y is identical with x' is always
Why would plugging in C(x) into that particular statement help me interpret "C(the father of Charles II.)"? What is Russell saying? By substituting, does he mean, for instance, that C(x) could mean "x was annoying," and substituting in C(x) in the above would result in
"it is not always false of x that x begat Charles II. and that x was annoying and that 'if y begat Charles II., y is identical with x' is always
I still don't quite understand how this gives us a means of interpreting "C(the father of Charles II.)".

I'll leave it at that; I don't want to pose too many questions at once.
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Mosesquine
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Re: Russell's On Denoting

Post by Mosesquine »

Russellian analysis defines 'there is exactly one F' merely. So, 'the king of France is bald' is understood as follows:
(1) There exists some x such that x is a king of France.
(2) There is at most one x such that x is a king of France.
(3) The one is bald.
The combination of (1) to (3) is 'the king of France is bald'. In other words, the combination of (1), (2), and (3) is understood as 'there is exactly one king of France, and that one is bald'.
Belindi
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Re: Russell's On Denoting

Post by Belindi »

Curieuse wrote:Hello everyone,

I finished reading Russell's work entitled On Denoting; I must confess I found it rather difficult. So, I now reading it for a second time and hoping that the erudite members of this board might kindly guide me in my understanding of this work. Some of these questions may not be "philosophical" in nature, but rather questions about understanding sentences; as it is, the subject discussed is a little difficult and trying to interpret certain sentences adds to the difficulty. To begin, early in the work, when he is trying to understand the definite article "the," he states
To interpret "C(the father of Charles II.)," where C stands for any statement about him, we have only to substitute C(x) for "x was executed" in the above.
What exactly does "in the above" refer to? There are many things that came before this. I presume he is referring to
"it is not always false of x that x begat Charles II. and that x was executed and that 'if y begat Charles II., y is identical with x' is always
Why would plugging in C(x) into that particular statement help me interpret "C(the father of Charles II.)"? What is Russell saying? By substituting, does he mean, for instance, that C(x) could mean "x was annoying," and substituting in C(x) in the above would result in
"it is not always false of x that x begat Charles II. and that x was annoying and that 'if y begat Charles II., y is identical with x' is always
I still don't quite understand how this gives us a means of interpreting "C(the father of Charles II.)".

I'll leave it at that; I don't want to pose too many questions at once.
Stands for 'in the above proposition'. The simple excerpt you provided makes sense as it stands, so it's unnecessary to refer to the many things that came before.

Plugging in C(x) is a way of saying that (x) is attributed to C in addition to what has already been attributed to C. Have you learned elementary algebraic notation? If not, it would take only a few minutes and would greatly aid your understanding of this matter of what logically follows from what is attributed to whom. You need to allocate a different letter to each attribute, like so:


"it is not always false of x that x begat Charles II. and that x was annoying and that 'if y begat Charles II., y is identical with x' is always [/quote]
p then

It might be true to claim:

1. x begat Charles II

and

2. x was annoying

and

3.y is the same as x if and only if y begat Charles II .

------------------------------

x is p
x is q
if p then x.
x includes that q and the argument does not invalidate q.
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Curieuse
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Re: Russell's On Denoting

Post by Curieuse »

Okay. I realize that I opened this thread a rather long time ago, but other things distracted me from finishing Russell's On Denoting. So I am back at it once again. Unsurprisingly, I have some new questions, but let us first read an excerpt:
If we say "the King of England is bald," that is, it would seem, not a statement about the complex meaning "the King of England," but about the actual man denoted by the meaning.
What I find somewhat perplexing about this quote is when he says "about the complex meaning." What exactly is meant by "complex" in this setting; does it refer to another sentence such that it means "the King of England?" Also, notice that he says "but about the actual man denoted by the meaning. [emphasize added]" In this section, he seems to be arguing against Frege's view in Sense and Reference (and theories akin to it). Does Frege actually hold a view like this? I didn't get the impression that Frege held the meaning (sense) to denote something, while reading Sense and Reference. What Russell is saying here appears rather subtle, but perhaps I am wrong and it is straightforward. I'll let you be the judge of that!

Now, in the paragraph containing this quote, and the one following it, Russell seems to be arguing against theories that posit that every denoting phrase must have a meaning and denotation (sense and reference) by considering a few examples. The first of these is about the King of France. The examples that follow this are the ones that confuse me, namely, the one about the unit class and the King's only son. Let's first look at the unit class.

The unit class example is, like the King of France example, suppose to show that statements can have meaning and truth value despite having no denotation (referent). Here is what he says concerning this example:
Or again consider such a proposition as the following: "If u is a class which has only one member, then that one member is member of u," or, as we may state it, "If u is a unit class, the u is a u." This proposition ought to be always true, since the conclusion is true whenever the hypothesis is true. But "the u" is a denoting phrase, and it is the denotation, not the meaning, that is said to be a u. Now if u is not a unit class, "the u" seems to denote nothing; hence our proposition would seem to become nonsense as soon u is not a unit class.
First of all, I do not see how "If u is a class which has only one member, then that one member is member of u" and "If u is a unit class, the u is a u" say the same thing, particularly the conclusions of the two conditional statements.

However, just focusing on the latter conditional statement, I am somewhat confused at what he says about it. I grant that the conditional is always true, because the conclusion "the u is a u" appears to be a tautology. Moreover, I grant that "the u" is a denoting phrase, where, presumably, "u" is a variable that ranges over all classes/sets. What perplexes me is that the denoting phrase "the u" has no denotation once "u" is not a unit class. Why couldn't "the u" denote whatever "u" is? I find this remarkably confusing. Is he stipulating that it refers solely to unit classes? If that's the case, how could it ever denote anything but a unit class, so that his worry seems groundless? Why does he think this is true? I don't see how the proposition becomes nonsense as soon as u is anything besides a unit class.

I'll leave it at that. Once we have resolved these issues, we can move on to the example about the King's son.
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