Does Descartes commit the fallacy of begging the question, because the I has already been presupposed in the premise?
It seems as such. My question about the validity of Descartes statement has to do with what is "it" that "is" in his statement (or "am" to be more precise).
Is he a thought? Is he a producer of a thought? Of the latter, what is it that produces the thought and if an impermanent entity is he not just a coming together of matter and mind in a temporary fashion that "is" for a short time? This leads to is he what he identifies as "am" just a series of thoughts brought together by co-dependent origination, a product of the material world, short lasting, not eternal, no permanent existing self? If his is the case, he is only a series of ever-changing processes with no identifiable permanent structure, no permanent self, and thus is only an "am" in a series of moments, existing for brief periods of times, with no center he can identify as "self".
My point is that we all may be just a series of processes, able to think, make thought, move about this earth in a physical form, completely dependent upon the five senses, which in the end are only receptors of data.
If this is so, than all idea of a "me" existing is rather ludicrous, at least a me in any permanent way that will continue to exist and "be" but for a short span, we being only a series of processes, each with a beginning, middle, and end.
I have managed in the construct of a few short lines to make this "am" completely incapable of forming an intelligble response. And for that please forgive me, but rest assured the duration of the irritation one might feel is short lasting, impermanent, and no part of a permanent self.