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Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

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Hiram

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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#76  PostAugust 2nd, 2012, 12:40 pm

Jeffery Lyons wrote:Hiram

I'd say Hiram that we naturally categorise what is going on in our own minds and what we observe going on around us, which is the root of this subjective and objective division. Objectivity and subjectivity are not invalid ways of thinking, but the way we are currently educated, causes most people to make this division at the expense of personal introspection - i.e. examining ones own life and behaviour, with the intentions of doing what is right and good.


Jeffery Lyons

"Objectivity and subjectivity are not invalid ways of thinking." I am afraid they are when there is a tendency to confuse the two, as in the apparent quest to find objective meaning/morality, the object may well be out there, but whatever meaning is understood is the property of a conscious subject . In your second statement, I am glade that you look within, again situations may present themselves but that which is right and good is a subjective process.

"To God all things are right and good, only to man, somethings are and somethings are not." Heraclitus

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Prof

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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#77  PostAugust 2nd, 2012, 3:48 pm

Wouldn't it help if each Forum member would give his or her definition of the term "objectivity."

Mine is: "shared consensus among the acknowledged authorities in the relevant field" is what makes a statement "objective."

In the case of ethics, it would be a consensus among those who have proposed a theory of ethics, such as Singer, M. C. Katz, Mary Gordon, Jeremy Rifkin, Derek Bok, Comte, etc.

Would each of you please define the concept "objective" , or "objectivity."? PLEASE.

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Jeffery Lyons

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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#78  PostAugust 2nd, 2012, 3:58 pm

Hiram

I'm knew to this forum stuff, so I'm not really sure if what you just did, is what is referred to as "quote mining" - i.e. taking a small section of my words out of context. And then taking the word introspection and changing it into "Subjective Process".

I think the simplest way to start understanding the terms subjective and objective, is with the phrases "I like that" which is subjective, and "That is good" which is objective - i.e. the good is in the thing, wether I think of it or not. So my contention with these two terms, is that the way we are educated has a huge effect on both of these ways of thinking.

Introspection is about reflecting on ones life experiences, and in this light, what you refer to as "A Subjective Process" could refer to the way you first acquired many of your values. Generally speaking, introspection is a much more physical way of thinking, whereas subjective and objective are more static; but of course, ones thoughts easily slip between them all.

As for the Heraclitus quote, which attempts to define some attribute of a deity; I think this ancient Greek quote is much better:

Whoso nobly yields unto necessity, we hold as wise and skilled in things divine. [Euripides]


This quote places a divine element in are own actions, it's therefore much better for an introspective attitude to life.






how ones values were aquired onesubjective and objective values
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Prof

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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#79  PostAugust 2nd, 2012, 5:20 pm

Jeffery Lyons wrote:.... the good is in the thing, wether I think of it or not.



I'm afraid not, Jeffery. A judgment that something (or someone) is good cannot be isolated from a judge doing the valuing....except in theory. But the theory ought to contain variables, so that the specifics can be inserted upon application of the theory.

I do, though, believe that Ethics and morality can be objective. I have already explained how.
To learn more on ethical topics, check out these references:onlinephilosophyclub.com/forums/viewtop ... amp;t=6097
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Stoic

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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#80  PostAugust 2nd, 2012, 8:15 pm

Prof wrote:Wouldn't it help if each Forum member would give his or her definition of the term "objectivity."

Mine is: "shared consensus among the acknowledged authorities in the relevant field" is what makes a statement "objective."

In the case of ethics, it would be a consensus among those who have proposed a theory of ethics, such as Singer, M. C. Katz, Mary Gordon, Jeremy Rifkin, Derek Bok, Comte, etc.

Would each of you please define the concept "objective" , or "objectivity."? PLEASE.

-


That cannot possibly be your definition of "objective". True, such a thing is a good popular test of general legitimacy, but to say it is what "objective" means would imply that until such a consensus is reached the subject of study is not objective. So, someone breaking new ground in physics, then, would just be working out their own subjective musings? Physics is subjective until the physicists decide on something? How about "there is life in the Andromeda galaxy"? There is no consensus on this matter, but we would not consider it "subjective" would we? We just say that we don't know. If whether or not there is life in the Andromeda galaxy is subjective, then there is no point in even trying to find out. Even if we ever can do a comprehensive search of the galaxy, its subjectivity means that it is up to the personal preferences of whoever considers it.

Also, what about cases where the experts all agree on something but are subsequently proven wrong? Mathematicians everywhere for centuries thought that the fifth postulate of Euclidean Geometry could be derived from the other four. It was a great unsolved problem of mathematics. Then, someone came along in the 19th century and proved that it was actually independent of the others. Was he objectively mistaken even though he had a mathematically correct proof?
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Hiram

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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#81  PostAugust 3rd, 2012, 1:43 pm

This is what I suspected, everyone has a different interpretation. Tell me if you would, in what way do you make sense out of this quote from Schopenhauer. "Subject and object standings or falls together."
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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#82  PostAugust 3rd, 2012, 7:22 pm

Jeffery Lyons wrote:As for the Heraclitus quote, which attempts to define some attribute of a deity; I think this ancient Greek quote is much better:

Whoso nobly yields unto necessity, we hold as wise and skilled in things divine. [Euripides]

This quote places a divine element in are own actions, it's therefore much better for an introspective attitude to life.


You are a fellow Stoic.

-- Updated August 3rd, 2012, 6:31 pm to add the following --

Hereandnow wrote:
Please keep in mind that I am not, and I put this to you explicitly already, talking about moral principles like Thou shalt not ......I am talking about the foundation of morality: Value. All of those pains and horrors, joys and tickles. It is absurd to think these do not exist. If you want to bring traditional concepts of reality into it, then you are going to have a heck of a time trying to explain how it is that the world of fact is acknowledged independently of mere phenomena. It's been tried. See Locke, Descartes, et al. Kant helped us a lot with this confusion. See his Critique of Pure Reason. The upshot is this: All that I know of biology, the facts of observation, are no more out there than this pain in my left foot. Try and prove this wrong, if you dare. Why not give it a go? It is a good exercise in reasoning.


The belief that value is the foundation of morality and not just a derivative concept from it is, in my opinion, largely responsible for most of the philosophical skepticism of objective morality these days. Most people and philosophers would count pains and horrors and joys and tickles as clearly subjective experiences. Values associated with them are generally thought to be personal values as distinct from moral value.

-- Updated August 3rd, 2012, 6:40 pm to add the following --

Hiram wrote:
Jeffery Lyons

"Objectivity and subjectivity are not invalid ways of thinking." I am afraid they are when there is a tendency to confuse the two, as in the apparent quest to find objective meaning/morality, the object may well be out there, but whatever meaning is understood is the property of a conscious subject . In your second statement, I am glade that you look within, again situations may present themselves but that which is right and good is a subjective process.

"To God all things are right and good, only to man, somethings are and somethings are not." Heraclitus


Morality is not about "meaning" or "purpose" or some such thing as that. The understanding of it is the property of a conscious subject, but it, itself, is not, neither need it be said to "exist" or be part of the physical world for it to be what we would consider "objective". The issue is whether or not moral utterances are actually propositions or assertions that are either true or false. That is what is meant (that they are such things) when one says that morality is objective. The objects discussed in an assertion need not exist for the assertion about them to be either true or false. In fact, would you not say that morals do not exist? How can that statement be objectively true?
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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#83  PostAugust 4th, 2012, 3:41 am

No one who posted since I requested that you pin down "objective," offered any definition of it.

Now I must further request that hereandnow define "morality." He doesn't like mine, in my Unified Theory of Ethics, so I'd like to know his ...and see if we can find some common ground. My definition definitely does involve personal values.

I needed a term for the relationship between one's self-identity and one's actual conduct, and chose the word "morality" as the name for it. It fits in with the rest of the network of concepts rather well, as you will note when you read the references you may click on below.
To learn more on ethical topics, check out these references:onlinephilosophyclub.com/forums/viewtop ... amp;t=6097
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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#84  PostAugust 4th, 2012, 6:21 am

I think not. The morality of every society, indeed - every religion seems to reflect the survival aspirations of those individuals who make up the whole. Whether this is achieved through aggression or cooperation depends purely on what gives each individual the best chance. Laws, religions, cultures all bend with the wind to suit the climate of the time. Our virtue is born of a millenia of genetic refinement.
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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#85  PostAugust 4th, 2012, 6:35 am

Prof wrote:
I needed a term for the relationship between one's self-identity and one's actual conduct, and chose the word "morality"

I agree with Badger Bob and I don't think it helps to try to redefine 'morality'. Perhaps 'integrity', 'authenticity' or 'sincerity' ?
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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#86  PostAugust 4th, 2012, 10:40 am

Well, seems the differing interpretations are to continue. Think about this for a moment, subject and object not only stand or fall together, they can never be separated from each other. Objectivity infers separation of subject and object, or perhaps degrees there of, meaning the degree of the subjects involvement with object. In scientific experimentation, this is true, often the degree of involvement is either kept to a minimum or the involvement is considered in the basic equation of the experiment, BECAUSE, true objectivity is not within the realm of possibility. We have become use to separating subject and object for convenience, when in fact it is a break with reality. The apparent world is a biological readout, a subjective interpretation of stimulus from the outer world, it is NOT ultimate reality, but is a relational reality arising in a biological subject through the relation of subject and object, The physical world as you perceive it , does not exist, apparent reality is not an objective one, it is a subjective reality. There is no such thing as objectivity because there is no such thing as an objective world of things, only through biology/consciousness do all those wave frequencies take on the forms of objects.

APPARENT REALITY IS A BIOLOGICAL READOUT.

ALL MEANINGS ARE THE PROPERTY OF A CONSCIOUS SUBJECT AND NEVER THE PROPERTY OF THE OBJECT.

BELIEF IN OBJECTIVITY IS A BREAK WITH REALITY.

THE ONLY THINGS THAT CAN BE SAID TO BE OBJECTIVE, ARE THE VARIOUS FORUMS OF WAVE FREQUENCIES/ENERGY.

"IF YOU WISH TO DEBATE ME SIR, DEFINE YOUR TERMS." VOLTAIRE



"I think not. The morality of every society, indeed - every religion seems to reflect the survival aspirations of those individuals who make up the whole. Whether this is achieved through aggression or cooperation depends purely on what gives each individual the best chance. Laws, religions, cultures all bend with the wind to suit the climate of the time. Our virtue is born of a millenia of genetic refinement." QUOTE

I SECOND THE AGREEMENT WITH BADGER BOB.

-- Updated August 4th, 2012, 11:48 am to add the following --

"I'm knew to this forum stuff, so I'm not really sure if what you just did, is what is referred to as "quote mining" - i.e. taking a small section of my words out of context. And then taking the word introspection and changing it into "Subjective Process"."

The Heraclitus quote, is a direct quote, from what is available of his of thinking. I do not think he is so much trying to attribute qualities to the deity as perhaps underlining the blatantly obvious that there is indeed no such thing as objective reality. If one is to question this, one might consider that harsh reality of all of biological nature, that all life lives on the life of other creatures--nature you might say is in violation of any sense of morality. Subjective process would be introspection, as the only beholder of meaning whatsoever is the conscious subject, never the object. By the way welcome aboard, I believe you will find this forum a good one.

-- Updated August 4th, 2012, 11:48 am to add the following --

"I'm knew to this forum stuff, so I'm not really sure if what you just did, is what is referred to as "quote mining" - i.e. taking a small section of my words out of context. And then taking the word introspection and changing it into "Subjective Process"."

The Heraclitus quote, is a direct quote, from what is available of his of thinking. I do not think he is so much trying to attribute qualities to the deity as perhaps underlining the blatantly obvious that there is indeed no such thing as objective reality. If one is to question this, one might consider that harsh reality of all of biological nature, that all life lives on the life of other creatures--nature you might say is in violation of any sense of morality. Subjective process would be introspection, as the only beholder of meaning whatsoever is the conscious subject, never the object. By the way welcome aboard, I believe you will find this forum a good one.
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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#87  PostAugust 4th, 2012, 11:01 pm

Prof wrote:No one who posted since I requested that you pin down "objective," offered any definition of it.

Now I must further request that hereandnow define "morality." He doesn't like mine, in my Unified Theory of Ethics, so I'd like to know his ...and see if we can find some common ground. My definition definitely does involve personal values.

I needed a term for the relationship between one's self-identity and one's actual conduct, and chose the word "morality" as the name for it. It fits in with the rest of the network of concepts rather well, as you will note when you read the references you may click on below.


The word "objective" in "objective morality" pretty uncontentiously just means that moral statements are propositions that are either true or false. It is true that the objective/subjective distinction is a question in philosophy with those that challenge it, but that discussion is normally not really directly part of the metaethical discussion we've been having.

I think I could easily trot out a working definition of morality that would not be to your satisfaction, something like "a body of overriding normative prescriptions that supercede all other considerations in guiding the behavior of the persons they apply to." So, on this working definition, moral subjectivists can reject morality as "not existing" in the sense that there are no such overriding prescriptions. Ethics is that area of philosophy that deals with morality -- "the study of morality".

I wouldn't say I've nailed it since I am sure I am probably missing something that would emerge with scrutiny. And, that brings up the real point I wanted to make. You cannot demand a definition of morality here (or any more than a working definition which we all already sufficiently have) because any such definition is just as much fair game for scrutiny and discussion as morality, itself, is. Such is the nature of philosophy and its topics. If someone really could give the definitive definition of morality and know that their definition is the definition, then that would be equivalent to having the whole subject all worked out. It is not at all legitimate to demand that whoever comes to you talking about morality have the entire subject figured out before they say a single thing about it. As an example, I doubt such a perfect definition even exists for "mathematics" or "physics". There are plenty of good working definitions such as what a mathematician or a physicist might come up with, but the foundations of both subjects remain open and so the ultimate definition that really can withstand all scrutiny probably does, too.
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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#88  PostAugust 5th, 2012, 9:43 am

I believe what is of concern is, from what source does morality arise, and does it belong to the subject/consciousness or to the objective physical world. There seems to be a certain degree of confusion here. My own belief is that it belongs to the subject, morality being, as a creation, biological extension. So, in essence what I am saying is morality arises out of the nature of humanity as a means to self interest and social cohesion. Whatever subjective/moral judgments decide, good bad or indifferent, can only be subjective, as ALL meaning is subjective, again, the physical world in the absence of consciousness is utterly meaningless. It is biology/consciousness that bestows meaning upon a meaningless world.

Morality: A collective agreement on a body of thoughts and sentiments intended to make social cohesion/civilization possible by establishing justice for the individual as well as for the collective.

"MORALITY AND AUTONOMY ARE MUTUALLY EXCLUSIVE." NIETZSCHE
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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#89  PostAugust 5th, 2012, 6:10 pm

Hiram wrote:I believe what is of concern is, from what source does morality arise, and does it belong to the subject/consciousness or to the objective physical world. There seems to be a certain degree of confusion here. My own belief is that it belongs to the subject, morality being, as a creation, biological extension. So, in essence what I am saying is morality arises out of the nature of humanity as a means to self interest and social cohesion. Whatever subjective/moral judgments decide, good bad or indifferent, can only be subjective, as ALL meaning is subjective, again, the physical world in the absence of consciousness is utterly meaningless. It is biology/consciousness that bestows meaning upon a meaningless world.

Morality: A collective agreement on a body of thoughts and sentiments intended to make social cohesion/civilization possible by establishing justice for the individual as well as for the collective.

"MORALITY AND AUTONOMY ARE MUTUALLY EXCLUSIVE." NIETZSCHE


Your characterization of the issue has several highly contentious assertions built into it. If you say that the only objective things belong to the physical world, then that is going to end up being a pretty extreme philosophical position to take -- even among atheists (although it is quite common to see among atheists). I would even say that one could be a materialist (thinking that the only things that can be said to "exist" are things of the physical world) and still not adhere to the view that the only objective things are about the physical world.

What about logic, for instance? That is so clearly a priori, that to say otherwise I think virtually anyone would admit they have a heavy burden of proof to do so. Yet, is it not true? Or, is that just a matter of personal preference and we just all tend to strongly prefer it? What about mathematics? That is another a priori subject. Sometimes people will try to argue otherwise, but such arguments are usually predicated on a generally false impression of just what the math is when we take out all of the things they customarily see with it (i.e. the science, engineering and business applications that it is usually taught with). The fact is that for centuries (ever since the Platonist geometers) has been done by a priori reasoning and not by any empirical methods. One does not prove mathematical theorems by taking measurements and doing experiments. Mathematics is a priori and not of the physical world but precedes it.

These are two examples of very nontrivial subjects that are both exemplars of objectivity as well as are about things not of the physical world. Even still, one might argue that they are analytic and not synthetic (to borrow a distinction from 18th century philosophy). And, in this vein, arguments might be made that I would like to cut off at the start as really just beside the point. The fact is that they are nontrivial subjects that we must examine and discover truths of. Moreover, finding the correct definitions (yes, that's right, definitions can be wrong) for things in them is itself a process of discovery not an arbitrary process of personal preferences or even collective preferences. We don't vote on it or form a consensus. The only consensus that is formed is over interest in a topic and over whether or not someone has answered the questions or proven the theorems (and even in the latter, it doesn't mean that they haven't -- just that we don't think they have). The definitions get figured out based on the requirements of the questions being posed.

Morality and, indeed, most of philosophy works exactly like that. It is largely an a priori subject. The consensus is over whether a topic is interesting and over whether someone has finally gone and solved it by setting forth just the right definitions and deriving from them the answers. Unlike math and logic, most of philosophy addresses topics with a lot of philosophical vagueness in them which causes it to be informal while mathematics is mostly formal. We embrace mathematics as being objective because it is difficult to argue with its formality and ability for people to be summarily and unequivocally proven wrong. But, because people can keep arguing on philosophical topics and the problems generally take centuries to even begin figuring them out, we often like to think those topics cannot be resolved and are really, in the end, matters of "personal opinion" (which really just means personal preference when we use it that way). But, in reality, it is just informal not subjective.

Another highly contentious point in your characterization of morality is that it requires agreement. That might be necessary to conceive of it in the subjective social manner that you are, but it certainly isn't prima facia true at all. Most of our popular experience with morality is by way of disputes, after all. We become aware of a moral dilemma through disagreement not agreement. And, in any case, the requirement of agreement seems arbitrary. You might conclude that this must happen if you conclude that morality is really an intersubjective consensus or some such thing as that. But, you certainly cannot define morality that way. That would beg the question.
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Re: Is there any evidence for Objective Morality?

Post Number:#90  PostAugust 5th, 2012, 8:40 pm

May be a hard question. Even today, there are people who feel that Hitler is a hero. So I cannot find evidence.
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