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existential yellow snow
Joined: 11 Jun 2009 Posts: 40
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Post: #1 Posted: Fri Aug 28, 2009 12:39 am Post subject: Immanuel Kant thread |
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This thread is devoted to interpreting and outlining Kant's philosophy. I am starting with five sources:
Routledge Philosophy GuideBook to Kant and The Critique of Pure Reason
by Sebastian Gardner
ISBN: 041511909X
Kant: A Very Short Introduction
by Roger Scruton
ISBN: 0192801996
Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics
transl. by James W. Ellington
ISBN: 0872205932
Critique of Pure Reason
transl. by Werner S. Pluhar
ISBN: 0872202577
Lecture Series by Dr. G. J. Mattey
The last website will serve as my general guideline*
Since Kant was responding to Hume's skepticism and Lebniz's idea that reality is only accessible to pure reason, you may only speak of those two in relation to Kant; elaborate, expound, or quote their passages that influenced Kant.
If I make a fallacy, please correct me. We are a community, so do not be rude to anyone unless they digress from this thread's purpose.
I will frequently ask questions, quote passages from texts, and summarize key points in succinct & simple english. If I am too ambiguous or dense, please PM me with your recommendations.
This is a long project. I believe the end will come in 4-6 months. My blog will serve as a back-up.
Last edited by existential yellow snow on Tue Sep 15, 2009 12:30 am; edited 5 times in total |
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Belinda Contributor
Joined: 10 Jul 2008 Posts: 2812
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Post: #2 Posted: Fri Aug 28, 2009 7:10 am Post subject: |
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It would help me if you could answer questions about Kant's philosophy. Answering questions may help you, because when you set out to teach someone else you are faced with the challenge of meaning what you say.
Your'tomorrrow' topic is of great interest and I look forward to reading it, especially if you remain as concise as your style today. |
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existential yellow snow
Joined: 11 Jun 2009 Posts: 40
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Post: #3 Posted: Sat Aug 29, 2009 12:54 am Post subject: |
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After surfing a college website devoted to Kant, I realized that I should approach my study differently. First notes will be posted soon.
[first post edited]
[this post last edited on Sept. 13, 2009] |
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existential yellow snow
Joined: 11 Jun 2009 Posts: 40
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Post: #4 Posted: Tue Sep 15, 2009 12:16 am Post subject: |
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Required reading:
Kant's letter to Marcus Herz
Mattey's Lecture 1
Lecture 1: Intro to Kant
Download the Notes I created with several simple diagrams. Last edited: Sept. 18
| Outline on Notes wrote: |
I. Extypal (AKA “sensuous”) Presentations
II. Archetypal Presentations
III. Different kinds of Presentations
A. Singularly
1. Intuition
2. Sensibility
B. Generally
1. Concept
2. Understanding
IV. Fundamental Question of Metaphysics: How do pure concepts secure reference to objects?
V. Pure concepts have their reference in phenomena
VI. Phenomena vs. Noumena distinction, in relevance to Kant |
Familiarize yourself with the terminology provided. This is the first chapter, so become familiar with the terminology because they will be used more frequently. Read Mattey's lecture and Herz's letter alongside my helpful notes.
Last edited by existential yellow snow on Sun Sep 20, 2009 10:05 pm; edited 15 times in total |
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Belinda Contributor
Joined: 10 Jul 2008 Posts: 2812
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Post: #5 Posted: Tue Sep 15, 2009 2:19 am Post subject: |
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Sensuous presentations as opposed to intuitions or concepts:
Presentations of specific objects are called "intuitions, " while presentations of a number of objects through some common characteristics they share are called "concepts." We have noted that the fundamental problem in metaphysics is to discover how pure or a priori concepts generated by the understanding without recourse to sensuous presentation apply to intuitions which are, for human beings, sensuous presentations.
presentation:� [Vorstellung, or �representation�]� The manner in which the mind apprehends something (e.g. my concept of a �horse� is a presentation of the general quality of being a horse; my intuition of �Desert Orchid� is my immediate presentation of that particular horse). There are some contexts, however, in which Kant evidently restricts the meaning of 'presentation' to sensible presentations.
archetype: the ¡¥idea¡¦ of perfect humanity that resides within each person. Calling Jesus the Christ signifies that his life fully realized this idea.
This is a glossary of terms in Kant from a reputable academic source http://www.staffs.ac.uk/schools/humanities_and_soc_sciences/philosophy/.resource/modules/Level%20Two/HS689-2/glossary.htm |
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existential yellow snow
Joined: 11 Jun 2009 Posts: 40
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Post: #6 Posted: Tue Sep 15, 2009 2:56 am Post subject: |
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Yes, it seems my notes were pretty accurate. However, I made one mistake of putting archetypal below sensuous perception. Granted, your terms coincide with the ones Mattey named (i.g., intuition, sensibility, concept, understanding, and so forth). I will also follow the schedule, so I don't want to discuss the a priori/a posteriori and analytic/synthetic distinctions just yet
Both intuitions (AKA singularly) and concepts (AKA generally) refer to all forms of knowledge.
| Alex Scott wrote: |
| Kant says that knowledge arises from two main sources: the sensibility and the understanding... Sensibility produces intuitions, and understanding produces concepts. |
In summary, sensibility is the receptive faculty responsible for the production of intuitions and understanding is the indirect reference to objects through concepts by a spontaneous activity of the mind.
I WILL ELABORATE A LITTLE FURTHER ON PURE CONCEPTS
| Routledge Philosophy Guidebook to Kant page 30 wrote: |
Representations wrapping up the first Lecture
Representation (Vorstellung) is Kant’s generic term for a constituent or element of cognition, similar in scope to ‘idea’ in the writings of the rationalists and empiricists: anything subjective that can play a role in composing a judgement or knowledge claim counts as a representation for Kant (its sense is thus philosophical, not psychological). It is in general possible to understand how a representation can relate to its object, Kant claims, if it either causes its object, or is caused by its object. Consequently there is no problem in understanding how sensory representations can relate to objects, since the mind is straightforwardly passive with respect to the objects of the senses, which (we naturally suppose) produce representations of themselves in us. But it is not readily intelligible how intellectual representations - ‘the pure concepts of the understanding’, which the Dissertation had claimed can alone represent ‘things as they are’ - can relate to objects, for they are not produced through our being affected by objects (Kant assumes that empiricist accounts of concept-formation are false), and nor do they produce their objects (to suppose which would be to confuse the human intellect with the creative intellect of God). Hence the problem. Previous solutions to it, Kant points out, are evidently defective. |
Note: Intellectual Representations are beyond the capacity of the mind.
Further elaboration on PURE CONCEPTS
Kant claims, human UNDERSTANDING spontaneously generates CONCEPTS from itself. "These concepts are “pure,” as opposed to the empirical concepts that are derived from the casual presentation of objects to the mind" (Mattey). Kant claims these PURE concepts are "abstracted from the laws inherent in the mind (by attending to its actions on the occasion of experience)."
Kant is trying to show how these pure concepts have objective REFERENCES... "The problem of presentation for pure concepts of the understanding is the fundamental problem of metaphysics" (Mattey). He held that pure concepts reference phenomena, scroll down.
BASIC OUTLINE OF NOUMENA VS POENOMENA
(Note: Will delve more in-depth when I'm on Mattey's Lecture 14)
Noumena: [bersinnliche] (Similar: thing-in-itself, supersensible, intelligible) That realm of objects, unexperiencable in principle, which is purported to be the ground of all objects of experience.
Phenomenon/phenomena: Roughly, phenomenon is equivalent to appearance; phenomena to appearances.
Appearance: [Erscheinung] That which is given/presented in an empirical intuition. Appearance is thus real, and not to be confused with the notion of 'illusion' in any sense. Appearances is often used by Kant to designate the sensible world in general.
For Kant,
| Lecture 1: Mattey wrote: |
We humans have no access to such noumena as the Platonic forms. It may be that there are other ways of describing noumena. But for now, we will pass over to the view that things that appear are the same things as things as they are. That is, things as they are (noumena) appear to the human mind in a certain way through sensuous presentation, as phenomena...
He held that pure concepts of the understanding have phenomena as their objects of reference. The insight that made him break with the Leibniz-Wolff position was that there is nothing degraded in the presentation of things as they appear. In effect, Kant elevated the status of phenomena by making them the objects of reference of the pure concepts of the understanding. |
Last edited by existential yellow snow on Sun Sep 20, 2009 10:06 pm; edited 2 times in total |
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existential yellow snow
Joined: 11 Jun 2009 Posts: 40
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Post: #7 Posted: Wed Sep 16, 2009 4:21 pm Post subject: |
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Okay, I am done covering Lecture 1. It's time for discussion. You may discuss or ask questions on any of these:
I. Extypal (AKA “sensuous”) Presentations
II. Archetypal Presentations
III. Different kinds of Presentations
A. Singularly
1. Intuition
2. Sensibility
B. Generally
1. Concept
2. Understanding
IV. Fundamental Question of Metaphysics: How do pure concepts secure reference to objects?
V. Pure concepts have their reference in phenomena
VI. Phenomena vs. Noumena distinction, in relevance to Kant
Notes were last updated Sept. 18.***
NEXT LECTURE
"Leibniz-Wolff" Metaphysics
Required Reading
Critique of Pure Reason = pages 5-40, 323-343, 755-774
Prolegomena = pages 1-8
Will consult Scruton and Gardener's texts as secondary sources periodically.
Expected entry:
1-2 weeks
Last edited by existential yellow snow on Fri Sep 18, 2009 5:15 pm; edited 2 times in total |
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Belinda Contributor
Joined: 10 Jul 2008 Posts: 2812
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Post: #8 Posted: Thu Sep 17, 2009 5:22 am Post subject: |
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Did Kant intend these definitions to be ad hoc? So far 'intuition' definition is in line with modern neuroscience,but may not continue so.Other definitions may be embedded in Kant's time and place for all I know. Should we be forewarned about this possibility?
Point taken about postponing synthetic a priori. Order is more comfortable for studying, also post modern disruption had not yet been invented in Kant's time.
Routledge page 30 extract could do with fleshing out with real life examples. Is Kant's position similarly to Chomsky's regarding language?
Is Kant's position also rationalist with regard to mathematical or logical truths? Is Kant's position on ethics 'top-down' because certain ethical truths are embeddeed in pure reason?
What if anything stops Kant's stance on the noumenal being the same as Plato's stance on the Forms? quote:Intellectual Representations are beyond the capacity of the mind.
I suggest that Plato's Forms are, for Plato,actually accessible to the philosopher who is freed from cultural conventions but Kant's noumenal world is by its nature absolutely inaccessible. So Kant is more metaphysical than Plato who shows the cool Greek trust in the liberating power of reason.
Please, Yellow Snow,tell what academic level this series is at. I suggest that it looks like year 3 undergraduate . |
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existential yellow snow
Joined: 11 Jun 2009 Posts: 40
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Post: #9 Posted: Fri Sep 18, 2009 1:52 pm Post subject: |
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| Belinda wrote: |
| Did Kant intend these definitions to be ad hoc? So far 'intuition' definition is in line with modern neuroscience,but may not continue so.Other definitions may be embedded in Kant's time and place for all I know. Should we be forewarned about this possibility? |
Kant's claims pertain to knowledge alone, in the metaphysical domain. They do not relate to the empirical sciences. Perhaps, some of his views will conflict or coincide with modern science, similar to Hume's monads and atoms, but we should still understand Kant's main points regardless of their relevance to the empirical sciences.
| Quote: |
| Routledge page 30 extract could do with fleshing out with real life examples. Is Kant's position similarly to Chomsky's regarding language? |
Let me provide a better passage. Here is a passage from Kant's letter to Herz summarizing his aim:
"Thus the possibility of both an intellectus [ARCHETYPAL] (on whose intuitions the things themselves would be grounded) and an intellectus [ECTYPAL] (which would derive the data for its logical procedure from the sensuous intuitions of things) is at least intelligible. However, our understanding, through its representations, is not the cause of the object (save in the case of moral ends), nor is the object the cause of the intellectual representations in the mind (in sensu reali). Therefore the pure concepts of the understanding must not be abstracted from sense perceptions, nor must they express the receptions of representations through the senses; but though they must have their origin in the nature of the soul, they are neither caused by the object nor bring the object itself into being. In my dissertation I was content to explain the nature of intellectual
representations in a merely negative way, namely, to state that they were not modifications of the soul brought about by the object. However, I silently passed over the further question of how a representation that refers to an object without being in any way affected by it can be possible."
This is presumably the reason he wrote The Critique of Pure Reason. Kant is trying to determine the reference of the "Intellectual Representation" (AKA pure concepts of understanding).
| Quote: |
| Is Kant's position also rationalist with regard to mathematical or logical truths? Is Kant's position on ethics 'top-down' because certain ethical truths are embeddeed in pure reason? |
Right now we are dealing with how Kant explains the possibility of objects, with presentations and so forth. There are 2 schools of differing thought on this: analytic and idealistic. Perhaps, when I write essays for this forum and myself (after 3-4 weeks), I will include this distinction. For now, I am following Mattey's lectures alongside secondary sources in order to help with clarity.
| Quote: |
| Please, Yellow Snow,tell what academic level this series is at. I suggest that it looks like year 3 undergraduate . |
This is definitely undergraduate, hence why I chose it! I want to start with a thorough, yet not overly descriptive, lecture series first. Kant is VERY complex and there are many differing interpretations on his views, so I believe it's best to start with the basics. I don't plan to become a Kant scholar soon... |
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Felix
Joined: 09 Feb 2009 Posts: 350
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Post: #10 Posted: Fri Sep 18, 2009 3:00 pm Post subject: |
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"Noumena: [bersinnliche] (Similar: thing-in-itself, supersensible, intelligible) That realm of objects, unexperiencable in principle, which is purported to be the ground of all objects of experience."
What is the "realm of objects" that this passage refers to? If it is "unexperiencable in principle,"
why is it defined as a realm of objects? _________________ There is nothing in a caterpillar that tells you it's going to be a butterfly. - Buckminster Fuller |
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existential yellow snow
Joined: 11 Jun 2009 Posts: 40
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Post: #11 Posted: Fri Sep 18, 2009 3:34 pm Post subject: |
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| Felix wrote: |
"Noumena: [bersinnliche] (Similar: thing-in-itself, supersensible, intelligible) That realm of objects, unexperiencable in principle, which is purported to be the ground of all objects of experience."
What is the "realm of objects" that this passage refers to? If it is "unexperiencable in principle,"
why is it defined as a realm of objects? |
Mattey's Lecture #13 goes more in-depth about the Noumena and Phenomena distinction.
For now, we are supposed to accept the information presented in the current lecture. The Routledge Guide presents many differing viewpoints (i.g., analytic and idealist), and I plan to go more in-depth in Mattey's later lectures, considering it's my main guideline due to organization:
| Quote: |
| Kant certainly rejected this point of view, for reasons we have already seen. We humans have no access to such noumena as the Platonic forms. It may be that there are other ways of describing noumena. But for now, we will pass over to the view that things that appear are the same things as things as they are. That is, things as they are (noumena) appear to the human mind in a certain way through sensuous presentation, as phenomena. |
Kant is basically elevating the position of things as they appear, phenomena, as the reference to pure concepts of understanding (i.g., his main goal as indicated by the letter). Sensuous presentations have their reference in objects, archetypal presentations have reference to the presentation for it is partially responsible for the presented object (e.g., conceive of God and see archetypes for what you "create"), and pure concepts of understanding (also called Intellectual Representations) have their reference in phenomena (NOTE: this is disputed bot for NOW we must accept it).
| Kant's Letter to Herz wrote: |
| However, our understanding, through its representations, is not the cause of the object (save in the case of moral ends), nor is the object the cause of the intellectual representations in the mind (in sensu reali). |
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Belinda Contributor
Joined: 10 Jul 2008 Posts: 2812
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Post: #12 Posted: Sat Sep 19, 2009 7:51 am Post subject: |
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"Thus the possibility of both an intellectus [ARCHETYPAL] (on whose intuitions the things themselves would be grounded) and an intellectus [ECTYPAL] (which would derive the data for its logical procedure from the sensuous intuitions of things) is at least intelligible. However, our understanding, through its representations, is not the cause of the object (save in the case of moral ends), nor is the object the cause of the intellectual representations in the mind (in sensu reali).
This sounds to me as if Kant follows Plato in his claim that the Forms are accessible to everyone because every person intuits the Forms.I note that " nor is the object the cause of the representations in the mind",however, Plato did not claim that intuition is the whole of the cause; for Plato reason also was a cause of the representations.
What I am asking is : are Platonic Forms and Kant's noumena the same or different?
I am trying to understand the scope of rationalism(as opposed to empiricism) rationalism which may for all I know contain different explanations regarding how we can know something, beyond the general explanation of rationalism that a sort of knowledge objectively and absolutely exists and that we can access this knowledge. |
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existential yellow snow
Joined: 11 Jun 2009 Posts: 40
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Post: #13 Posted: Sat Sep 19, 2009 2:05 pm Post subject: |
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| Belinda wrote: |
| What I am asking is : are Platonic Forms and Kant's noumena the same or different? |
| Wikipedia which uses Mattey and other reputable sources wrote: |
Kant also makes a distinction between positive and negative noumena[17]
"If by 'noumenon' we mean a thing so far as it is not an object of our sensible intuition, and so abstract from our mode of intuiting it, this is a noumenon in the negative sense of the term".[18]
"But if we understand by it an object of a non-sensible intuition, we thereby presuppose a special mode of intuition, namely, the intellectual, which is not that which we possess, and of which we cannot comprehend even the possibility. This would be 'noumenon' in the positive sense of the term."[19]
The positive noumena, if they existed, would roughly correspond with Plato's Forms or Idea — immaterial entities which can only be apprehended by a special, non-sensory, faculty: "intellectual intuition".[20]
Kant doubts that we have such a faculty, because for him intellectual intuition would mean that thinking of an entity, and its being represented, would be the same. He argues that humans have no way to apprehend the meaning of positive noumena:
Since, however, such a type of intuition, intellectual intuition, forms no part whatsoever of our faculty of knowledge, it follows that the employment of the categories can never extend further than to the objects of experience. Doubtless, indeed, there are intelligible entities corresponding to the sensible entities; there may also be intelligible entities to which our sensible faculty of intuition has no relation whatsoever; but our concepts of understanding, being mere forms of thought for our sensible intuition, could not in the least apply to them. That, therefore, which we entitle 'noumenon' must be understood as being such only in a negative sense.[21] |
Refer to Mattey's Lecture #13 for more info.
For now, we are supposed to accept the simplified explanation that Kant considers phenomona as the reference for intellectual representations. He believed we had no access to noumena; as you previously stated, he adopted a more metaphysical viewpoint.
I'll go more in-depth on the distinction of positive and negative noumena by the designated time.
I'll read the required reading for the next lecture, take concise notes, and post them here in approximately 4 days. |
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Felix
Joined: 09 Feb 2009 Posts: 350
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Post: #14 Posted: Sat Sep 19, 2009 4:32 pm Post subject: |
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As I understand it, Kant distinguished between two types of phenomena: sensuous (apprehended via our senses) and nonsensuous (apprehended intuitively), and he called the latter noumena. He said that to distinguish between the two, I quote: "In order that a noumenon may signify a real object, that can be distinguished from all phenomena, it is not enough that I should free my thought of all conditions of sensuous intuition, but I must besides have some reason for admitting another kind of intuition besides the sensuous, in which an object can be given, otherwise my thought would be empty, however free it may be from contradictions." (Boy, he really was expert at writing short, succinct sentences, wasn't it?).
Therefore we can apprehend noumena through intuitive introspection (but not through sensuous reason). _________________ There is nothing in a caterpillar that tells you it's going to be a butterfly. - Buckminster Fuller |
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existential yellow snow
Joined: 11 Jun 2009 Posts: 40
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Post: #15 Posted: Sun Sep 20, 2009 10:02 pm Post subject: |
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| Tobias Hoffmann's Handout on Prologomena wrote: |
Q. Can we still say that our knowledge is objective, even though we do not know the things as they are in themselves?
A. For Kant, it is precisely under this supposition that we can say that we know things with objectivity (and a priori). We have an objective knowledge of the things as they appear to us, though we have no knowledge of the things as they are in themselves. |
We will delve more about this topic in Lecture 3. I will complete Lecture 2 by Friday and Lecture 3 by Monday, since I already possess knowledge on it. I am strictly following Mattey's order of lectures for ease in comprehension. Moreover, I will periodically write essays scrutinizing major concepts. Expect the first essay by October 2nd.
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