Here in the U.S., property rights include an obligation to pay taxes, which are then used for purposes you claim are akin to slavery or robbery. You define property rights in such a way that the obligations (which are the law in most countries) are ignored. How (I wonder) is this "empirically supported"? The property laws of every country in the world do not support it.GE Morton wrote: ↑October 14th, 2021, 11:23 am
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The description and explanation of property rights --- what they are --- I've given is pretty solidly supported historically and empirically. It is not controversial. That they "ought to be" something else is is the claim of their critics (e.g., that they "ought to be" based on need, rather than first possession).
Another example is your objection to my "100% chance" comment. A "chance" is a probability. Comparing a 1/52 probability to a 1/1 probability is reasonable -- wherefore the objection? Many of your "definitions" are slanted to promote your rhetorical positions. (It's not that big a deal -- don't worry about it.)