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That being said please comment on the following statements and the conclusion :
Free-will if not defined as followed is incoherent :
The precursors of will obviously fall in the domain of causality (being precursors) yet
The exertion of will being inherently acausal. (free-will can not be defined otherwise)
And so :
(A) Seeing free-will as the result of both causal and acausal elements we can determine
the precedence of one over the other by studying the available information regarding the precursors
of a choice and also seeing their relevance in the resulted act.
Thus concluding the proclivity of an individual or man in general toward one of the modes of causation.
(hypothetically accepting both acausality or free-will as a given)
(B) Accepting both free-will and "causality as the solitary argument for the existence of a creator"
are mutually exclusive for "the exertion of free-will" and acausality are interdependent and if all
phenomena is not causal then the big bang for instance has no need for a precursor (cause).
The same statement does not apply to god only as "a central intelligence"
(C) Based on free-will, The moral worth of each indivdual falls upon himself and the moral worth of man
in general can only be summarized if causality is concluded as the precedental factor for (A).
yet the moral worth
of a supposed creator can be determined based on the moral predisposition he has provided for his
creation as opposed to possible alternative characteristics that would have provided a different
moral predispostion. (Alternative evolutionary origins, alternative planetary conditions ...etc)
(D) The act of worship of a hypothetical deity that is regarded as "the creator" or "the central intelligence"
(or both) is virtuous only if :
1 - Causality is concluded as the precedental factor of (A)
2 - The current moral predisposition of man in general is regarded as virtuous. (C)