One can know something definitely and irrefutably exists by experiencing it.Knowledge-by-acquaintance is basically a term for experiencing something--having direct contact with it.phenomenal_graffiti wrote: ↑Wed Jan 29, 2020 4:16 pm
We don't know non-experiences even exist to be "perceived" or "cognized". As they are things that are not a person or the first-person subjective experience of a person, they are entirely imaginary concepts, the imagination of non-experience itself made up of...you guessed it, subjective experience. So there is only subjective experience that shows up and demonstrates it exists: nothing else appears or demonstrates it exists.
It seems like you're conflating two different senses of "know" there. One sense is knowledge-by-acquaintance. The other sense is propositional knowledge.
Propositional knowledge is a term for justified true belief. It doesn't require experiencing or having direct contact with something.
One can know something definitely and irrefutably exists simply by believing it exists? Can something that is not and has never been experienced by a person be definitely and irrefutably true because one believes in it?
How can believing in something make the belief justifiably true? Can belief indicate objective existence as well as direct experience?
How can one know something exists simply by believing something exists without having experienced it?
What makes some beliefs justifiably true and others dubious?
So we find ourselves in the following predicament:You're saying that you don't have knowledge-by-acquaintance with things that are not experienced. That's obviously the case, since knowledge-by-acquaintance is a term for experiencing or having direct contact with something.
But that's not what we're saying when we say that you can know things you do not experience. We're saying you can have propositional knowledge of things you do not experience. For propositional knowledge, subjective experience of the thing in question is often irrelevant.
I. Persons and first-person subjective experience can be known to exist and are known to exist through knowledge-by-acquaintance.
II. That which Bertrand Russell referred to as 'matter' and George Berkeley referred to a 'unperceived substance' (that which, in the mythology that brains create consciousness there was a time when first-person subjective experience did not exist as brains did not exist) cannot be known through knowledge-by-acquaintance but can only be known through propositional knowledge.
But...existence only appears and has only ever appeared in the form of knowledge-by-acquaintance, re: first-person subjective experience.
Existence has never appeared, and one surmises by the existence of subjective experience, can never appear, in the form of non-experience.
knowledge-by-acquaintance in the form of belief in non-experience indicates that non-experience exists?
How can one know non-experience exists simply by believing it exists?
What makes it so that belief infallibly and irrefutably indicates existence?
It seems that "Propositional knowledge" of the existence of non-experience (what Bertrand Russell refers to as 'matter' and George Berkeley refers to as 'unperceived substance') cannot be justified true belief, as existence cannot appear as or in the form of non-experience (even further, one might argue that existence can only appear in the form of a subject of experience and that which the subject experiences).