Yes supine intent is a crucial component. You can hurt someone without doing it with neglect nor it being deliberate, and under those conditions it is not abuse. That is my point, well one of them anyway. Abuse is to deliberately harm another, or in cases of dependency also harmful neglect (failing to provide adequately for children or fully dependent adults).
Passive aggression is deliberate (sometimes) so it meets the first criteria which is where my main point from above comes in. Each individual’s emotional needs are their needs. Failing to give someone what they want is not the same as inflicting an injury. Now a husband deliberately berating his wife (thus reducing her from her base condition) that is abusive, because he didn’t fail to meet her needs, he actually acted to make her condition worse than it was, he inflicted injury. Likewise in the I suspect extremely rare case which Hog Rider mentioned where a spouse teases her man sexually, gets him all worked up and then denies him, that too I would call abuse, because she deliberately invoked the desire and then denied it, in short she manifested his distress.
The other forms of sexual withholding (not in the mood), it being a tool for manipulation, is not abuse. Men have used cash and being the provider as a tool for power for ages, and no one calls them abusive for it, in fact we usually admire them for being a good provider. Power should be manifested in a relationship as little as possible for it to be a healthy one. But we were not discussing the health of relationships we were discussing abuse.
-- Updated October 5th, 2014, 1:29 am to add the following --
Hog Rider wrote:
Is it an abuse if the man, starved of sex, goes and finds it elsewhere? Is infidelity an abuse? Obviously 'his problem" is solved with infidelity; so perhaps you think this is a suitable solution?
As for infidelity as a solution to the denial of sex, that becomes convoluted by the particular situation. Societal, religious, and legal norms (at least in the U.S.) all hold that cheating on someone is inflicting harm on them, that the social contract of relationships provides an assured expectation of fidelity. However If one were to express his needs and she were to still decline I think it would be completely reasonable to request permission to seek that need elsewhere, and if that permission was also denied (as I am sure would often be the case) he would then have to decide if the relationship is worth continuing. Breaking up is not abuse, but choosing to stay in mutually agreed upon monogamous relationship and then cheating is.
This applies to any need which is not being met, what holds a relationship together is meeting enough of each other’s needs to satisfy each other. I doubt many people can claim that their relationship completely fills all of their needs, at least none that I know claim that. We weigh the good against the bad and then make our ruling.
So yes if the “need” for sex is felt by an individual to be great enough that the lack of it makes the relationship unviable he should let his spouse know that. From there they either adjust the nature of the relationship or split up.